|11 messages over 2 pages: 1 2 |
Joined 4634 days ago
361 posts - 921 votes
Speaks: Portuguese, English*, German, Italian, Spanish, Dutch, Swedish, Esperanto, French
Studies: Mandarin, Danish, Russian, Norwegian, Cantonese, Japanese, Korean, Polish, Greek, Latin, Nepali, Modern Hebrew
Message 9 of 1127 May 2015 at 5:59am | IP Logged
Jassem's position may be fully laughable, but similar types of etymological reasoning have been used to support
less outlandish hypotheses. For instance, Martin Bernal's Black Athena used speculative etymology-hunting to
argue that a massive proportion of Greek words and place-names were derived from Egyptian and Semitic sources,
contrary to mainstream historical and linguistic analyses. He doesn't argue that Greek is an Afro-Asiatic language,
but only that the majority of items that aren't clearly Indo-European can be traced to borrowings from Egyptian and
Semitic. Yet, the reasoning is similar: centuries of multiple languages offer lots of candidate word forms that can,
allowing for some phonological and semantic change, be matched with Greek words. See
http://www.people.fas.harvard.edu/~jasanoff/pdf/Word%20games .pdf for a rebuttal of this more
persuasive (and therefore more pernicious, if it is as wrong as most linguists assert) use of squishy etymology.
Edited by robarb on 27 May 2015 at 6:00am
4 persons have voted this message useful
Joined 4881 days ago
201 posts - 262 votes
Speaks: Norwegian*, English, Italian, Spanish
Studies: Finnish, Russian
Message 10 of 1127 October 2015 at 3:58pm | IP Logged
This is of course utter nonense. But the Afroasiatic languages and the Indoeuropean
languages have certain common traits, for example vowel ablaut, in Arabic and older IE
stages to a degree that only the consonants carry the basic meaning of a word.
On a very deep level these two language families might be related and these properties
may originate from the common stage a long time ago.
Many will argue that the IE vowel alternations have a well understood origin, being
linked to accent patterns.
This is true for the quantitative ablaut, but still this ablaut is a very old
fenomenon and one does not know how long back it originated.
The origin of qualitative ablaut i less well understood, and again it is very old and
one does not know how old it is.
What is certain is that they are older than the common proto-IE and must hence
originate from some deeper prehistoric level.
Edited by Aquila123 on 27 October 2015 at 4:01pm
1 person has voted this message useful
| Monox D. I-Fly|
Joined 4710 days ago
762 posts - 664 votes
Message 11 of 1127 October 2015 at 6:13pm | IP Logged
|I think in India they claim everything came from one word - and by everything they don't mean only all words from all languages - they mean the Universe itself with everything in it.
Somehow that sounds Yu-Gi-Oh! like, especially ZeXaL.
Back to topic:
Being a Muslim myself, I did believe that the first language was Arabic because that what Adam spoke to God and vice-versa. God must have taught Adam everything's names in Arabic. However when I said to my lecturer during college that Arabic was the first language, he (who is also a Muslim) corrected me, saying that the first language was Hebrew. When I thought about it, it did make sense since Islam is just a newer version of Christian which is itself a newer version of Jew. Now the last time I heard, the first language was Phoenician, or cave painting if it can even be considered a language. I just... couldn't care anymore about these religion conspiracy things.
1 person has voted this message useful
This discussion contains 11 messages over 2 pages: << Prev 1 2
If you wish to post a reply to this topic you must first login. If you are not already registered you must first register
You cannot post new topics in this forum - You cannot reply to topics in this forum - You cannot delete your posts in this forum
You cannot edit your posts in this forum - You cannot create polls in this forum - You cannot vote in polls in this forum
This page was generated in 0.1875 seconds.